19 January 2012
Whenever someone commits any of the seemingly irrational slayings that have helped to make our Depraved New World infamous, there arises a debate over whether he is evil or criminally insane. Why must these two be considered exclusive of one another? Has it not occurred to people that someone's psychosis may be a product of his malice rather than an alternative explanation thereof? Adolf Hitler was unquestionably a paranoiac (as well as, late in life, a schizophrene); would anyone have denied that he was responsible for his crimes, and argued for his confinement to a psychiatric institution?