Uncommon Commentary #440: Absolving the Criminally Insane Is Itself Criminally Insane

Why does our system of justice consider the psychiatric concept of criminal insanity, and the theological concept of evil, to be mutually exclusive?  Does it never occur to us that perhaps someone’s criminal insanity has resulted from his evil?  Had Adolf Hitler, who was clearly a paranoiac, lived past the end of World War II and been put on trial at Nuremberg, ought he to have been judged “not guilty by reason of insanity”?