As
this year marks the centennial anniversary of what has become known as the Armenian
Genocide, there has been discussion, much of it pointless and even detrimental [v.i.],
as to whether what took place in the northeast Ottoman Empire in 1915 can rightly
be deemed genocide. What happened was as
follows. During World War I, the Russian
army invaded Ottoman Turkey across the border between the two countries, in
which area lived the Armenians of the Turkish realm. The Turkish authorities feared that the
Christian Armenians would give aid to the Christian Russians, and so they
ordered the massacre of Armenians serving in the Ottoman army and the
deportation of the empire’s remaining Armenian population to places like the
Syrian Desert, where these women, children, and male civilians perished in
enormous numbers from exposure, thirst, starvation, and depredation.
“Genocide” was coined to describe the
National Socialists’ “Final Solution” to the “Jewish Problem”, which solution was
to attempt to exterminate all the Jews of the world. The Ottoman leadership, by contrast, did not
care whether the Armenians died so
long as they were in no position to help the enemy. What the Turks did to their Armenians may
not, therefore, truly qualify as “genocide”, which my dictionary defines as
“the systematic killing of, or a program of action intended to destroy, a whole
national or ethnic group”; note the word “whole” in this definition. It must also be acknowledged that the term
“genocide” has been used far too loosely by many ethnic groups who have
grievances against other nationalities. To
question whether there was an Armenian “genocide”, however, basing one’s
question on a legal definition
thereof, is to serve the purpose of the deniers who control Turkey’s government,
which still refuses to acknowledge that what has been called genocide even took
place. (The official lie is that the Armenian deaths were caused by their
fellow Armenians in a civil war.) Nearly everyone outside Turkey admits that this
country’s atrocities of a century ago count as war crimes, and so: Why quibble
about words?
28 April 2015
23 April 2015
Uncommon Commentary #453: Doctrinal Error
Ever
since the present US administration commenced its disastrous intervention in Libya,
various persons have endeavored to define an “Obama Doctrine”. The latest, presumably official effort came
from President Obombast himself: “We will engage, but we preserve all our
capabilities.” What the *&^%$#@! does
that mean?
Here’s the real Obama Doctrine: “I’ll make any ad hoc foreign-policy decisions
necessary for the sake of appeasing public opinion or for what I want my legacy
to be, even if they are detrimental to the country and the world.”
18 April 2015
Uncommon Commentary #452: UC #450 Follow-Up
A
bill is under congressional consideration which is intended to assert (to some
degree) the Senate’s right to reject or to ratify our de-facto treaty with Iran. A news article reads (with some corrections):
Under the bill, Obama could unilaterally lift or ease any sanctions that were imposed on Iran through presidential executive means. But the bill would prohibit him for 60 days from suspending, waiving, or otherwise easing any sanctions that Congress levied on Iran. During that 60-day period, Congress could hold hearings and approve, disapprove, or take no action on any final nuclear agreement with Iran. If Congress passed a joint resolution approving a final deal -- or took no action -- Obama could move ahead to ease sanctions levied by Congress. But if Congress passed a joint resolution disapproving it, Obama would be blocked from providing Iran with any relief from congressional sanctions.Theoretically, he would be blocked; but what would prevent Emperor Nerobama [see the list of domanisms] from simply disregarding this law, just as he disregards the already-existing constitutional provision to which I alluded in the first sentence of this posting? (This demonstrates the hopelessness of again trying to use legislation to enforce the Legislature’s prerogatives against an overweening president, and it further reveals a basic flaw in our political system. The authors of the US Constitution seem to have proceeded from the assumption that those whom the people elect as their leaders will have no much respect for the workings of the government that they will obey the rules laid down by its founders. But what if they don’t have such respect? What if they’re abusers of authority, like the man who has turned the Oval Office into the Evil Office? There is, of course, the potentiality of impeachment, as I mentioned in UC #450; but, were a president convicted of impeachment charges, how would we respond if he simply refused to relinquish his power? We don’t have a federal police force that we could send in to arrest him. Would civil war break out?)
10 April 2015
Uncommon Commentary #451: Why Should Anyone Called “Hillary” Be Cheerful?
(“Cheerful” is what “Hilary”—this being the correct spelling—means. “Hillary”
is the surname of the conqueror of Mount Everest.)
Some brownskirt (see the list of domanisms, below) alleges that it’s “sexist” to call Hillary [sic] Clinton by her first name (as has been done by, for example, the past-and-future-candidate’s own “Ready for Hillary” [sic] campaign). “Clinton”, though, is her married name; isn’t it “sexist” to use that? I suspect that the tendency to refer to the former FirstLady by only her first name is either the
result of a desire to avoid
feminism-incited controversy, or a subconscious acknowledgement of the fact
that (as I noted in a previous uncommon commentary), in our patrilineal
culture, there really is no such thing as a feminine surname. In any case, I have the solution to this
pseudo-problem: Let’s start referring to her by a title instead. I propose “Supreme Hag of the USA”.
Some brownskirt (see the list of domanisms, below) alleges that it’s “sexist” to call Hillary [sic] Clinton by her first name (as has been done by, for example, the past-and-future-candidate’s own “Ready for Hillary” [sic] campaign). “Clinton”, though, is her married name; isn’t it “sexist” to use that? I suspect that the tendency to refer to the former First
06 April 2015
Uncommon Commentary #450: A Treaty, but Not a Treat
And
so, we’ve negotiated with Iran the "framework" of an arrangement that evokes Neville Chamberlain’s
“peace in our time” proclamation from 1938, and Emperor Nerobama’s
administration still insists that said arrangement does not qualify as a treaty
and therefore is not subject to approval or disapproval by the US Senate,
contrary to the US Constitution. (If it’s not a treaty, what is it?) The defects of our deal with the Deil (this
latter word being the Scottish dialectical variant of “Devil”) have already
been adequately discussed by pundits at reliable media like FoxNews.com, and so
there’s no need for me to add my opinions here.
My primary purpose in this posting is to speculate: What can the Senate
do to enforce its right to ratify, or reject ratification of, what obviously is
a treaty? The only option that I can see
is to impeach Obama; this ought to have been done long ago, and may be feasible
now that the Senate majority comprises Republicans, who, however, are
undoubtedly haunted by the political consequences of their attempt to bring
another abuser of presidential power, Bill Clinton, to justice. Our congressional leaders may, therefore,
lack the fortitude to do anything more than protest impotently against this
latest, and perhaps most egregious yet, instance of executive overreach.
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